Basic Maths - Grand Test 1 -Q12

+2 votes

Let f(x) = \begin{pmatrix} 1-\frac{1}{x^2}\end{pmatrix}^x.If x \rightarrow \infty then f(x) tends to _____

 

(A).1

(B).e^{-\frac{1}{2}}

(C).0

(D).e^{-2}

asked Jun 21 in Basic Maths by gbeditor (21,290 points)
reshown Jun 23 by gbeditor

2 Answers

0 votes
A is correct one
answered Jun 23 by tsnikhilsharmagate2018 (24,690 points)
0 votes

a is correct one.

answered Jun 23 by tsnikhilsharmagate2018 (24,690 points)
Answer:
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